Apparently this was the proof (I think? I have no real idea):
Is there some function 𝑓(𝑟) such that 𝑓(𝑟) →∞ as 𝑟 →∞, such that, for infinitely many 𝑛, there exist > 𝑎1,𝑎2 with
𝑎1+𝑎2>𝑛+𝑓(𝑟)log𝑛
such that 𝑎1!𝑎2! ∣𝑛!2𝑛3𝑛⋯𝑝𝑛
𝑟?
I didn’t get asked for a subscription. Maybe clear cookies? It said it was an Erdos problem and this guy and his friend have been trying AI on a number of Erdos problems. The output needed tidying up to make it more understandable but it sounds like the whole proof was created by the AI, or at least all the important parts.
I feel it is good to try to get through some of these low-hanging fruit problems for mathematicians to better spend their time thinking about the actual harder problems worth attention. I conducted this as a scientific experiment to see how far the models had progressed and what was now in reach for them.
Subscription required. Any1 knows what the problem was?
Apparently this was the proof (I think? I have no real idea):
I have no idea what any of it means lol
I didn’t get asked for a subscription. Maybe clear cookies? It said it was an Erdos problem and this guy and his friend have been trying AI on a number of Erdos problems. The output needed tidying up to make it more understandable but it sounds like the whole proof was created by the AI, or at least all the important parts.
Thank you, here seams to be a blog post talking about the process.
https://www.erdosproblems.com/forum/thread/blog:2
Thanks for the link